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Dear Mr. Cole,
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Women's Suffrage in the United States states that "although restricting access to the polls because of sex was made unconstitutional in 1920, women did not turn out to the polls in the same numbers as men until 1980. From 1980 until the present, women have voted in elections in at least the same percentage as have men, and often more. This difference in voting turnout and preferences between men and women is known as the voting gender gap."
According to the 1920 United States Presidential Election Wikipedia, "The total vote for 1920 was roughly 26,750,000, an increase of eight million from 1916. The Democratic vote was almost exactly the vote from 1916, but the Republican vote nearly doubled, as did the "other" vote... The great increase in the total number of votes is mainly attributable to the passage of the Nineteenth Amendment to the United States Constitution."
The Nineteenth Amendment to the United States Constitution Wikipedia states , "[In the 1920 Presidential Election] just 36% of eligible women turned out to vote (compared with 68% of men). The low turnout was partly due to other barriers to voting, such as literacy tests, long residency requirements and poll taxes. Inexperience with voting and persistent beliefs that voting was inappropriate for women may also have kept turnout low. The gap was lowest between men and women in states that were swing states at the time, such as Missouri and Kentucky, and where barriers to voting were lower."
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