3 Replies Latest reply on Apr 8, 2016 11:46 AM by Caroline Matticoli

    Why did the Americans from 1790-1814 resort to an exonerative relationship France after the American Revolution?


      I am a junior in high school writing a term paper that looks at the American Identity at the time and discusses how it was present in the fashion (Empire Style). Overall, my argument is that the American Empire style during 1790-1814 reflected the lack of an American identity due to an exonormative relationship with France beginning with the American neutral reaction to the French Revolution, followed by the rejection of the elitist and authoritative figures during Shay’s Rebellion and the War of 1812, and concluding with the neoclassical trend that is rooted in France and spread to the United States. But know, simply for curiosity, I would like to know why the Americans heavily relied on France. Exonormative is a linguistics term that means a society relies on another society to define the correct way to talk and write.