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Hi History Fan,
Thanks for your question!
The short answer is: No. The Nineteenth Amendment did not actively grant the right to vote to all women.
The Nineteenth Amendment to the U.S. Constitution, ratified on August 18, 1920, opened up the right to vote to women. The text of the document reads, “The right of citizens of the United States to vote shall not be denied or abridged by the United States or by any State on account of sex. Congress shall have power to enforce this article by appropriate legislation.”
Based on the language in the Nineteenth Amendment itself, you can see that it does not give women the right to vote, but rather took away sex as a barrier to voting for U.S. citizens. States and localities could still prevent women—and men—from voting through other means such as poll taxes, literacy tests, grandfather clauses, or other discriminatory practices under Jim Crow. Native American women also did not receive the vote with the Nineteenth Amendment as they were not considered U.S. citizens until the passage of the Snyder Act in 1924. Immigrant women could also not vote with the passage of the Nineteenth Amendment because they were not citizens of the U.S. For example, Chinese-American women did not receive the vote with the Nineteenth Amendment because the 1882 Chinese Exclusion Act barred them from becoming U.S. citizens.
The 1965 Voting Rights Act curbed many of the practices that limited the voting rights of many women (and men) across the country. However, the 2013 Supreme Court decision in Shelby V. Holder, which invalidated a key provision in the 1965 Act, made it far easier to change election and voting laws at the local level to discriminate against or suppress the vote of certain groups. Despite the Nineteenth Amendment, many women who are citizens of the United States still find their right to vote denied or made practically impossible to exercise.
You can read more at the following links:
I hope that helps!
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