Argument here. After looking at the clause I came to the following conclusion. The Congress of 1866 intended the Emancipation clause to ban reparations to both sides of the Slavery issue. The problem here is that there appears to be a major memory hole about the issue and slavery in general.
So no arguments over semantics here. I'm looking for proof in either direction on my question. So prove me wrong.
Quote.
But neither the United States nor any State shall assume or pay any debt or obligation incurred in aid of insurrection or rebellion against the United States, or any claim for the loss or emancipation of any slave; but all such debts, obligations and claims shall be held illegal and void.
